Do Eyes "Compensate?"
I hear this all the time, from patients and colleagues alike. People tell me that one of their eyes is blurry, so the other one "compensates". Does it? I think most of the time the eye that they told me is "compensating" is just seeing clearly while the other one is not. There is no real compensation going on. Since a person cannot focus (accommodate) one eye without the exact same amount of focusing for the other eye (since it's all controlled by one nerve), I just don't see how any eye can comensate for the other eye. If a pallet that is heavier on one side than the other gets lifted by a forklift, is one fork "compensating" for the other? Parents of amblyopes are asking me this all the time. "Since one eye is lazy, the other one compensates, right?" Er, no. The lazy eye just sees bad. The non lazy eye doesn't. That's it. The non-lazy eye is not somehow helping the lazy eye see better...if it were, we wouldn't need patching regimens that force the patient to use the lazy eye. There is no eye/vision "compensation". I just don't personally believe that exists.